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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 300-070 Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1(CIPTV1) Version: Demo300-209 dumps DEMO QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with the subscriber (10.1.5.3) listed first and the publisher (10.1.5.2) listed second. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager is used for incoming calls through an MGCP gateway? 300-360 dumps A. the publisher B. both the publisher and subscriber in a round-robin format C. the first server listed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group list D. the subscriber Correct Answer: A 642-998 dumps QUESTION 2 What function does the device pool perform? A. It separates user and physical location information. B. It sets the default device parameters for all IP phones in the cluster. C. It sets the location bandwidth used between different locations. 210-451 dumps D. It provides a single point of configuration for every device in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Correct Answer: A 400-351 dumps QUESTION 3 Which three steps are needed to enable time-of-day call routing? (Choose three.) A. Configure an access list. B. Configure a time period. C. Configure a time schedule. D. Configure a route pattern. 300-370 dumps E. Configure a partition. F. Configure dial rules. G. Configure a calling search space.Correct Answer: BCG 400-101 dumps QUESTION 4 Which three descriptions are true? (Choose three.) A. The class of service is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at Layer 2. B. The IP precedence is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at Layer 2. C. The differentiated services code point is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at Layer 2. 400-051 dumps D. The class of service is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at Layer 3. E. The IP precedence is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at Layer 3. F. The differentiated services code point is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at Layer 3. Correct Answer: AEF 400-201 dumps QUESTION 5 Which tool can you use to verify and troubleshoot a dial plan? A. Audit Log Configuration B. Dialed Number Analyzer C. CDR Analysis and Reporting D. Troubleshooting Trace Settings 200-125 dumps Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6 Which three commands show the output of an active video call? (Choose three.) A. show vrm active_calls B. show call active video brief 100-105 dumps C. show voip rtp connections D. show voice call E. show voice call summary F. show video dsp Correct Answer: BCE 210-260 dumps QUESTION 7 Which three options can belong to specific partitions? (Choose three.) A. voice-mail servers B. directory numbers C. translation patterns 300-115 dumps D. gateways E. IP phones F. route patterns Correct Answer: BCF 200-105 dumps QUESTION 8 What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.) A. They cannot use LDAP. B. They are used to authorize applications. C. They can utilize LDAP. 300-101 dumps D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types. E. They can be listed in a directory. Correct Answer: CD 200-310 dumps QUESTION 9 Route lists determine the order of preference for route group usage. If a route list is configured, what is the minimum number of route groups that you must configure? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 F. 6 G. 7 H. 8 210-060 dumps Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10 When the Cisco IOS router or gateway receives a call setup request, what is the PID value of the default dial peer? 200-355 dumps A. ID:3 B. PID:6 C. PID:0 D. PID:4 E. PID:5 F. PID:1 G. PID:2 H. PID:7 Correct Answer: C 640-911 dumps QUESTION 11 Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.) A. Device Settings > Softkey Template B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration 300-075 dumps C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template D. Device Settings > Device Profile E. Device Settings > Device Defaults F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information 300-320 dumps Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 12 An organization with a centralized dial plan has user extensions as the last four digits of the external DID number. Some users at the head office have overlapping extensions with the users at the branch offices. Which action fixes this issue without changing user extensions and allowing users to call each other across sites? 300-208 dumps A. Use site codes. B. Use different CSSs for both sites.C. Place both extensions in different partitions. 300-135 dumps D. Change the number of digits in the internal extensions. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit and configuration output. 400-251 dumps A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed. Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue? dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 6... 210-065 dumps preference 1 port 0/0/0:23 dtmf-relay sip-notify A. num-exp 512602 6001 300-206 dumps B. prefix 757385 C. forward-digits 2 D. forward-digits 4 E. prefix 5126 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14 Which two codecs are required for Cisco WebEx Enabled TelePresence? (Choose two.) 300-070 dumps A. G.711 codec for audioB. H.264 codec for video C. G.729 codec for audio D. G.711 or G.729 codec for audio 210-250 dumps E. H.263 codec for video F. H.264 or H.263 codec for video Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 15 Refer to the exhibit. 210-255 dumps Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine? A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed 200-150 dumps C. Thick Provision D. Thin Provision Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16 Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? (Choose three.) 200-155 pdf A. debug ccsip messages B. debug voip ccapi inout C. debug dialpeer match D. debug voip dialpeer inout E. show dialplan number Correct Answer: BDE 300-160 dumps QUESTION 17 Which three items have a calling search space? (Choose three.) A. transcoder B. gateways C. phone lines 300-165 dumps D. phones E. partitions F. AAR groups Correct Answer: BCDQUESTION 18 Which three options are components of Media Resources Architecture? (Choose three) 300-170 dumps A. Music on hold. B. Media Resource Manager. C. Media Resource Group. D. Route list. E. Route group F. Media Resource Group List. Correct Answer: BCF 300-175 dumps QUESTION 19 Which mechanism is often configured on the edges of a network to control the maximum rate of traffic that is sent or received on an interface and to classify the traffic into priority levels or class of service? A. routing B. shaping C. policing D. access control E. traffic regulation Correct Answer: C
Accueil / Finances / CORIS BANK La vérité sur la paternité ?

CORIS BANK La vérité sur la paternité ?

CORIS BANK La vérité sur la paternité ?

L’insurrection populaire du 30 octobre dernier, a remis au grand jour les nombreuses interrogations et conjectures sur les liens présumés et l’appartenance d’une kyrielle d’entreprises privées du pays (télécoms, hydrocarbures, financières, BTP, etc.) à la famille Compaoré. Coris Bank n’y a
pas échappé et fait les frais de cette lancinante controverse. Exclusif.

De sa date de création à aujourd’hui, Coris Bank Group fait l’objet de rumeurs sur les lèvres des Ouagalais. Beaucoup d’eau a coulé sous les ponts. La curiosité des uns et des autres y aidant, toutes sortes de conjectures aiguisent les «fadas» (causeries de quartiers) et les salons de thé. À notre arrivée sur place, une semaine après le soulèvement populaire, nous avons pu constater cette grosse fièvre de fantasmes bâtis autour de ce petit poucet bancaire devenu en si peu de temps le mammouth de la place financière de Ouagadougou. Tout le monde veut y croire, mais pas facile sur un coup de baguette magique de leur faire accepter cette saga fabuleuse, construite au gré de laborieuses épreuves. Ici et là, la population reste partagée entre deux postures ou évidences : celle d’un résultat d’un travail acharné conduit par un jeune entrepreneur burkinabé et celle que l’on pourrait appeler «Family Compaoré connexion».

Beaucoup estiment que derrière cette ascension fulgurante de Coris Bank subitement, qui à la fois agace et intrigue, la main de François Compaoré, celui que l’on a surnommé avant le 30 octobre dernier le président Bis du Faso, y est pour quelque chose. La montée en puissance de la mégabanque burkinabée devant les filiales des majors offshore, BNP Paribas, Société Générale, matérialisée par une rapide augmentation de capital passée de 10 milliards de f CFA à 25 milliards de f CFA, a suscité beaucoup d’interrogations. En réalité, confirment des sources bancaires
autorisées, la force et le secret de cette banque résident dans l’activité principale de son coeur de métier, les petites et moyennes entreprises et petites et moyennes industries. Une niche à forte croissance que les autorités de CBI ont vite flairé pour établir la différence d’avec ses concurrents majors surtout et qui se sont toujours montrés très frileux sur la place financière de Ouaga dans la mobilisation des lignes de prêts aux PME-PMI et souvent ne jouent pas les premiers rôles.

Les initiés mettent à l’avant l’innovation de son système de travail différent, souple et adapté au crédit au profit des populations démunies et
du secteur semi-industriel de l’Afrique. La rumeur a ainsi longtemps attribué la paternité et la propriété de la mégabanque à la famille Compaoré. Tantôt c’est François Compaoré à qui l’on attribue la propriété, clament certains, tantôt ce sont ses proches via des prête-noms. Un monstre à plusieurs têtes que les Burkinabés peinent à disséquer et attendent des réponses claires. En vérité, si les conjectures enflaient en coulisses sur l’appartenance de CBI à un clan de l’establishment Compaoré, c’est que les luttes d’influence sur la place bancaire de la capitale ont pris des proportions poignantes.
Une bataille sans merci à couteaux tirés. La Commission bancaire, elle, s’est toujours félicitée des résultats financiers -ces dernières années- en forte croissance de Coris Bank, publiés à temps contrairement à des banques opérant sur le marché et son respect de tous les ratios de bonne gestion.

Tour de table

Nos enquêtes nous ont permis de lever l’identité en exclusivité des constituants du tour de table de CBI. Au total, ce sont 43 associés dont entre autres Sonapost, Caisse nationale de sécurité sociale, une compagnie d’assurance (UAB, Union des assurances du Burkina) la BOAD et un partenariat fort avec Afreximbank basé au Caire, la SFI (branche du secteur privé de la Banque mondiale) et l’AFD via son fonds de garantie Ariz. Aucune traçabilité ou proximité avec la famille Compaoré.
La configuration de l’actionnariat est sans appel et démontre l’inexistence d’un lien entre la famille Compaoré et la banque. Ni les capitaux apportés ni les dépôts à terme ne font ressortir la proximité ou l’appartenance d’une quelconque action à Compaoré Family ou ses proches, nous a confirmé une source très au parfum du dossier.

Y a-t-il des prête-noms dissimulés ?
Aussi bien du côté des milieux d’affaires que du patronat burkinabé, les soupçons de prête-noms ne sont pas une thèse qui tient la route. Du moins, on refuse de croire que cette ascension rapide de la mégabanque qui a réalisé un total bilan de 452 milliards de f CFA fin exercice 2013 serait liée à la présence de l’ex-oligarchie chassée des affaires. Ça et là, on s’accorde à reconnaître que la success-story de Coris Bank continue à faire les frais de l’effacement et de la discrétion de son patron Idrissa Nassa, qui devrait apprendre à mieux communiquer. Pour la petite histoire, on se plaît à rappeler le parcours de géant de ce jeune entrepreneur Nassa Idrissa qui a commencé par le commerce, le négoce, le crédit avant de reprendre la FIB
(Financière du Burkina) un établissement financier qui était en administration provisoire qu’il a su redresser avant de la transformer en banque.

L’affaire Coris Bank qui défraie la chronique à Ouagadougou s’est révélée au finish comme la montagne qui a accouché d’une souris. Pour ne pas simplement dire un ballon d’autruche !

Ismael Aidara,
envoyé spécial à Ouagadougou

Les Afriques

3 commentaires

  1. Dommage! Votre article reste très superficiel et vous semblez avoir été acheté pour endormir le peuple burkinabé. Venez voir les révélations qui sont entrain d’être faites au trésor public burkinabé et dans certaines grosses boîtes: Une œuvre de François Compaoré. Nous attendons que CBI se blanchisse autrement. Sinon, notre révolution n’est pas prête à s’arrêter et elle ira au-delà des frontières du pays pour chercher ses fautifs. VIVE LA REVOLTION BURKINABE

  2. Je me dis que c’est pas toute la vérité, pourquoi il a fallu les casses de leur agences avant cette communication. Était_elle favorisée dans le régime d’avant? Si Oui, pourquoi? pourquoi c’est aujourd’hui que CBI divulgue ces infos? Une chose cloche!

  3. comment voulez vous etre objectif en ayant une pub de coris dans votre mur.

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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 300-207 Exam Name: Implementing Cisco 200-125 dumps Threat Control Solutions Version: DemoDEMO

QUESTION 1 When learning accept mode is set to auto, and the 100-105 dumps action is set to rotate, when is the KB created and used? A. It is created every 24 hours and used for 24 hours. B. It is created every 24 hours, but the current KB is used. C. It is created every 1 hour and used for 24 hours. D. A KB is created only in manual mode. Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2 What are three benefits of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure 210-260 dumps Mobility Solution? (Choose three.) A. It can protect against command-injection and directory-traversal attacks. B. It provides Internet transport while maintaining corporate security policies. C. It provides secure remote access to managed computers. D. It provides clientless remote access to multiple network-based systems. E. It enforces security policies, regardless of the user location. F. It uses ACLs to determine best-route connections for 300-115 dumps clients in a secure environment. Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 3 Cisco AVC allows control of which three of the following? (Choose three.) A. Facebook B. LWAPP C. IPv6 D. MySpace E. Twitter F. WCCP Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4 Which three statements about the Cisco IPS appliance 300-101 dumps configurations are true? (Choose three.)A. The maximum number of denied attackers is set to 10000. B. The block action duraton is set to 3600 seconds. C. The Meta Event Generator is globally enabled. D. Events Summarization is globally disabled. E. Threat Rating Adjustment is globally disabled. Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5 Which two Cisco IPS events will generate an IP log? (Choose two.) A. A signature had an event action 640-911 dumps that was configured with log packets. B. A statically configured IP or IP network criterion was matched. C. A dynamically configured IP address or IP network was matched. D. An attack produced a response action. Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6 Which IPS engine detects ARP spoofing? A. Atomic ARP Engine B. Service Generic Engine C. ARP Inspection Engine D. AIC Engine Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7 A system administrator wants to know if the email traffic 300-075 dumps from a remote partner will activate special treatment message filters that are created just for them. Which tool on the Cisco Email Security gateway can you use to debug or emulate the flow that a message takes through the work queue? A. the message tracker interface B. centralized or local message tracking C. the CLI findevent command D. the trace tool E. the CLI grep command Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8 Which three sender reputation ranges identify the default behavior of the Cisco 300-320 dumps Email Security Appliance? (Choose three.) A. If it is between -1 and +10, the email is accepted B. If it is between +1 and +10, the email is accepted C. If it is between -3 and -1, the email is accepted and additional emails from the sender are throttled D. If it is between -3 and +1, the email is accepted and additional emails from the sender are throttled E. If it is between -4 and +1, the email is accepted and additional emails from the sender are throttled F. If it is between -10 and -3, the email is blocked G. If it is between -10 and -3, the email is sent to the virus and spam engines for additional scanning H. If it is between -10 and -4, the email is blocked

Correct Answer: ACFQUESTION 9 Who or what calculates the signature fidelity rating in a Cisco 300-208 dumps IPS? A. the signature author B. Cisco Professional Services C. the administrator D. the security policy Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10 Which type of signature is generated by copying a default 300-135 dumps signature and modifying its behavior? A. meta B. custom C. atomic D. normalized Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11 Which command allows the administrator to access the Cisco 400-251 dumps WSA on a secure channel on port 8443? A. strictssl B. adminaccessconfig C. ssl D. ssh Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12 When you create a new server profile on the Cisco ESA, which subcommand of the ldapconfig command configures spam quarantine end-user authentication? A. isqauth B. isqalias C. test D. server Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13 What are three features of the Cisco 210-065 dumps Security Intellishield Alert Manager Service? (Choose three.) A. validation of alerts by security analysts B. custom notifications C. complete threat and vulnerability remediation D. vendor-specific threat analysis E. workflow-management tools F. real-time threat and vulnerability mitigation Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 14 Which Cisco Cloud Web Security Connector feature allows access by all of an organization's users while applying Active Directory group policies?A. a company authentication key B. a group authentication key C. a PAC file D. proxy forwarding E. a user authentication key Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15 The Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP) is a content-routing protocol 300-206 dumps that can facilitate the redirection of traffic flows in real time. Your organization has deployed WCCP to redirect web traffic that traverses their Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances (ASAs) to their Cisco Web Security Appliances (WSAs). The simulator will provide access to the graphical user interfaces of one Cisco ASA and one Cisco WSA that are participating in a WCCP service. Not all aspects of the GUIs are implemented in the simulator. The options that have been implemented are sufficient to determine the best answer to each of the questions that are presented. Your task is to examine the details available in the simulated graphical user interfaces and select the best answer.What traffic is not redirected by WCCP? A. Traffic destined to public address space B. Traffic sent from public address space C. Traffic destined to private address space D. Traffic sent from private address space Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16 Which feature does Acceptable Use Controls use to implement Cisco 300-209 dumps AVC? A. ISA B. Cisco Web Usage Controls C. Cisco WSA D. Cisco ESA Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17 What is a valid search parameter for the Cisco ESA find event tool? A. Envelope OriginationB. Envelope Type C. Message ID D. Download Type Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18 What is the function of the Web Proxy Auto-Discovery protocol? A. It enables a web client to discover the URL of a configuration file. B. It enables a web client to download a script or configuration file that is named by a URL. C. It enables a web client's traffic flows to 70-774 dumps be redirected in real time. D. It enables web clients to dynamically resolve hostname records. Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19 Which technology is used to improve business-critical application performance? A. Application Visibility and Control B. Intrusion Prevention Services C. Advanced Malware Protection D. TrustSec Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20 Which three categories of the seven major 210-250 dumps risk management categories are covered in the Cyber Risk Reports? (Choose three.) A. vulnerability B. risk rating C. legal D. confidence level E. geopolitical F. global reputation Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 21 Which platform has message tracking enabled by default? A. C670 B. C370 C. Virtual ESA D. It is not enabled by default on any platform. Correct Answer: D
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